CHAPTER 1: NATURAL RESOURSES AND THEIR USE
- Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource?
a) Coal
b) Petroleum
c) Solar energy
d) Natural gas
Answer: c) Solar energy - Which factor determines whether a natural element becomes a resource?
a) Its natural beauty
b) Technological accessibility and economic feasibility
c) Its color and texture
d) The amount consumed
Answer: b) Technological accessibility and economic feasibility - The term ‘exploitation’ in the context of natural resources refers to:
a) Waste and pollution
b) Extraction, utilization, and consumption
c) Degradation and destruction
d) Preservation and protection
Answer: b) Extraction, utilization, and consumption - Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
a) River water
b) Wind energy
c) Petroleum
d) Solar energy
Answer: c) Petroleum - Nature becomes a resource when:
a) It is untouched by humans
b) Humans use it for sustenance or production
c) It remains in its natural state
d) It cannot be accessed by technology
Answer: b) Humans use it for sustenance or production - Which of these defines the principle of regeneration in nature?
a) Recycling waste products manually
b) Plants growing back naturally after being cut
c) Usage of synthetic materials
d) Constant extraction of minerals
Answer: b) Plants growing back naturally after being cut - What causes a renewable resource to become non-renewable over time?
a) Human invention
b) Overexploitation beyond its regeneration capacity
c) Government policy
d) Climate stability
Answer: b) Overexploitation beyond its regeneration capacity - Coal reserves in India are expected to last approximately how long?
a) 20 years
b) 50 years
c) 75 years
d) 100 years
Answer: b) 50 years - Which traditional Indian system focuses on the care of trees and plants?
a) Ayurveda
b) Vrikshyurveda
c) Arthashastra
d) Agnihotra
Answer: b) Vrikshyurveda - Which state was declared 100% organic in 2016?
a) Punjab
b) Sikkim
c) Kerala
d) Himachal Pradesh
Answer: b) Sikkim - The International Solar Alliance was launched by which two countries?
a) India and USA
b) India and France
c) India and Japan
d) India and Canada
Answer: b) India and France - ‘The Natural Resource Curse’ refers to:
a) Excess use of renewable resources
b) Having many natural resources but poor economic growth
c) Lack of industrialization due to resource scarcity
d) Pollution caused by industries
Answer: b) Having many natural resources but poor economic growth - Which ecosystem function directly benefits humans by preventing soil erosion?
a) Industrial pollution
b) Forest cover
c) Overgrazing
d) Deforestation
Answer: b) Forest cover - What is the main cause of groundwater depletion in Punjab?
a) Lack of rainfall
b) Use of high-yield crop varieties and excessive pumping
c) Low population density
d) Absence of rivers
Answer: b) Use of high-yield crop varieties and excessive pumping - Which construction material industry is considered one of the most polluting?
a) Steel
b) Cement
c) Plastic
d) Textile
Answer: b) Cement - The Bhadla Solar Park is located in which Indian state?
a) Gujarat
b) Rajasthan
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: b) Rajasthan - What concept from the Bhagavad Gita relates to acting for collective welfare?
a) Moksha
b) Lokasangraha
c) Karma yoga
d) Ahimsa
Answer: b) Lokasangraha - What is the key principle behind ecosystem services?
a) Natural processes that indirectly benefit humans
b) Human-induced fertilization
c) Industrial outputs
d) Artificial plantations
Answer: a) Natural processes that indirectly benefit humans - Which of these natural resources is unevenly distributed across India?
a) Water
b) Minerals
c) Air
d) Sunlight
Answer: b) Minerals - Which ancient practice emphasised soil preservation and biodiversity in farming?
a) Green revolution
b) Vrikshyurveda
c) Industrial agriculture
d) Plasticulture
Answer: b) Vrikshyurveda
CHAPTER 2:-RESHAPING INDIA’S POLITICAL MAP
- Who was the founder of the Delhi Sultanate?
a) Babur
b) Qutub-ud-din Aibak
c) Ala-ud-din Khilji
d) Iltutmish
Answer: b) Qutub-ud-din Aibak - Which dynasty did Ala-ud-din Khilji belong to?
a) Tughlaq
b) Lodi
c) Khalji
d) Sayyid
Answer: c) Khalji - Muhammad bin Tughlaq moved his capital from Delhi to:
a) Agra
b) Daulatabad
c) Ajmer
d) Gwalior
Answer: b) Daulatabad - The introduction of token currency was attempted by:
a) Balban
b) Feroz Shah Tughlaq
c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
d) Ala-ud-din Khilji
Answer: c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq - The Vijayanagara Empire was established by:
a) Krishnadevaraya
b) Harihara and Bukka
c) Narasimhadeva I
d) Deva Raya II
Answer: b) Harihara and Bukka - The Battle of Talikota led to the decline of:
a) Mughals
b) Delhi Sultanate
c) Bahmani Sultanate
d) Vijayanagara Empire
Answer: d) Vijayanagara Empire - Who was the most celebrated ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire?
a) Deva Raya II
b) Harihara
c) Krishnadevaraya
d) Bukka Raya
Answer: c) Krishnadevaraya - The First Battle of Panipat (1526) was fought between:
a) Akbar and Hemu
b) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
c) Humayun and Sher Shah
d) Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh
Answer: b) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi - Which Mughal ruler defeated Rana Sanga?
a) Akbar
b) Humayun
c) Babur
d) Aurangzeb
Answer: c) Babur - The doctrine of Sulh-i-kul (peace with all) was introduced by:
a) Babur
b) Humayun
c) Akbar
d) Aurangzeb
Answer: c) Akbar - Which Mughal ruler built the Taj Mahal?
a) Akbar
b) Jahangir
c) Shah Jahan
d) Aurangzeb
Answer: c) Shah Jahan - Aurangzeb reimposed which tax abolished by Akbar?
a) Land revenue
b) Customs duty
c) Jizya tax
d) Salt tax
Answer: c) Jizya tax - The Battle of Haldighati (1576) was fought between:
a) Akbar and Rana Sanga
b) Akbar and Maharana Pratap
c) Babur and Rana Sanga
d) Aurangzeb and Durga Das Rathore
Answer: b) Akbar and Maharana Pratap - The Ahom Kingdom successfully resisted the Mughals in the:
a) Battle of Panipat
b) Battle of Saraighat
c) Battle of Haldighati
d) Battle of Talikota
Answer: b) Battle of Saraighat - Which system required able-bodied men to offer labor or military service in Ahom society?
a) Paik system
b) Iqta system
c) Mansabdari system
d) Zamindari system
Answer: a) Paik system - Guru Tegh Bahadur was executed by:
a) Akbar
b) Jahangir
c) Shah Jahan
d) Aurangzeb
Answer: d) Aurangzeb - The Khalsa was founded by:
a) Guru Nanak
b) Guru Arjan
c) Guru Gobind Singh
d) Guru Hargobind
Answer: c) Guru Gobind Singh - The Mansabdari system was introduced by:
a) Babur
b) Akbar
c) Jahangir
d) Shah Jahan
Answer: b) Akbar - The efficient land revenue system based on crop yield surveys was implemented by:
a) Todar Mal
b) Birbal
c) Abul Fazl
d) Tansen
Answer: a) Todar Mal - Which Mughal emperor imprisoned his father, Shah Jahan, in Agra Fort?
a) Aurangzeb
b) Jahangir
c) Humayun
d) Akbar
Answer: a) Aurangzeb
CHAPTER 3:-THE RISE OF THE MARATHAS
- Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj was formally crowned in which year?
a) 1630
b) 1657
c) 1674
d) 1680
Answer: c) 1674 - Where was Shivaji Maharaj’s coronation held?
a) Pune
b) Gingee
c) Raigad Fort
d) Pratapgad Fort
Answer: c) Raigad Fort - Shivaji’s concept of self-rule was called:
a) Swarajya
b) Samrajya
c) Rajdhani
d) Lokrajya
Answer: a) Swarajya - Who was Shivaji’s mother?
a) Tarabai
b) Jijabai
c) Ahilyabai
d) Savitribai
Answer: b) Jijabai - Which Sultanate’s general did Shivaji defeat and kill at Pratapgad?
a) Aurangzeb
b) Afzal Khan of Bijapur
c) Shaista Khan
d) Jai Singh
Answer: b) Afzal Khan of Bijapur - Which weapon did Shivaji famously use to kill Afzal Khan?
a) Sword
b) Dagger
c) Wagh Nakh (Tiger’s claw)
d) Spear
Answer: c) Wagh Nakh (Tiger’s claw) - Shivaji escaped from Aurangzeb’s captivity at which city?
a) Delhi
b) Ajmer
c) Agra
d) Hyderabad
Answer: c) Agra - Which war strategy used by Shivaji focused on speed and terrain advantage?
a) Siege warfare
b) Naval warfare
c) Guerrilla warfare
d) Defensive warfare
Answer: c) Guerrilla warfare - What was the title adopted by Shivaji after coronation?
a) Maharajadhiraj
b) Shri Raja Shiva Chhatrapati
c) Samrat Shivaji
d) Maharaj Shivaji Dev
Answer: b) Shri Raja Shiva Chhatrapati - What percentage of tax was ‘Chauth’ under Maratha rule?
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%
Answer: d) 25% - Which Maratha leader created a powerful navy on the western coast?
a) Krishnadevaraya
b) Kanhoji Angre
c) Bajirao I
d) Mahadji Shinde
Answer: b) Kanhoji Angre - Who was Shivaji’s finance minister and author of the text ‘Rajyapatra’?
a) Balaji Vishwanath
b) Ramachandrapant Amatya
c) Sant Tukaram
d) Nana Phadnavis
Answer: b) Ramachandrapant Amatya - Shivaji’s administrative council was called:
a) Sabha Mandal
b) Ashta Pradhan
c) Panchayat
d) Raj Parishad
Answer: b) Ashta Pradhan - Who was the naval chief credited with defeating English ships?
a) Shaista Khan
b) Jai Singh
c) Kanhoji Angre
d) Shahu Maharaj
Answer: c) Kanhoji Angre - Which queen led the Marathas after Rajaram’s death?
a) Ahilyabai Holkar
b) Tarabai
c) Jijabai
d) Rani Durgavati
Answer: b) Tarabai - Ahilyabai Holkar was the ruler of which region?
a) Pune
b) Indore
c) Thanjavur
d) Kolhapur
Answer: b) Indore - Who among the Marathas rebuilt the Kashi Vishwanath Temple?
a) Shivaji
b) Tarabai
c) Ahilyabai Holkar
d) Shahu Maharaj
Answer: c) Ahilyabai Holkar - Ekoji, Shivaji’s half-brother, established Maratha rule in:
a) Gujarat
b) Bengal
c) Thanjavur
d) Punjab
Answer: c) Thanjavur - Which Peshwa led the Maratha Empire to its greatest territorial extent?
a) Baji Rao I
b) Balaji Vishwanath
c) Nanasaheb Peshwa
d) Madhavrao I
Answer: a) Baji Rao I - The Maratha concept of self-governance later inspired:
a) The British reform acts
b) The Non-Cooperation Movement
c) India’s freedom movement
d) The Mughal resurgence
Answer: c) India’s freedom movement
CHAPTER 4:- THE COLONIAL ERA IN INDIA
- Who arrived at Calicut in 1498, marking the beginning of European colonization in India?
a) Christopher Columbus
b) Vasco da Gama
c) Ferdinand Magellan
d) Marco Polo
Answer: b) Vasco da Gama - Which European power established the Inquisition in Goa in 1560?
a) Dutch
b) French
c) Portuguese
d) British
Answer: c) Portuguese - Which battle marked the decisive defeat of the Dutch by the Travancore Kingdom in 1741?
a) Battle of Plassey
b) Battle of Colachel
c) Battle of Buxar
d) Battle of Karnal
Answer: b) Battle of Colachel - The French established their first trading post at which location in India?
a) Madras
b) Surat
c) Pondicherry
d) Goa
Answer: b) Surat - What policy did the British use to exploit divisions among Indian rulers and communities?
a) Direct rule
b) Divide and rule
c) Subsidiary alliance
d) Joint rule
Answer: b) Divide and rule - Which battle in 1757 marked the beginning of British dominance in India?
a) Battle of Buxar
b) Battle of Panipat
c) Battle of Plassey
d) Battle of Talikota
Answer: c) Battle of Plassey - What was the Doctrine of Lapse introduced by the British?
a) A treaty with Indian rulers
b) Policy to annex states without a natural male heir
c) A trade agreement with princely states
d) A law to share power with Indian rulers
Answer: b) Policy to annex states without a natural male heir - Which famous Indian nationalist authored “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India”?
a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
b) Dadabhai Naoroji
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: b) Dadabhai Naoroji - What was the impact of British taxation policies in Bengal during the famine of 1770?
a) Worsened famine leading to millions of deaths
b) Immediate relief and recovery
c) Distribution of free food
d) Complete exemption of farmers
Answer: a) Worsened famine leading to millions of deaths - Which Indian textile industry suffered severely due to British economic policies?
a) Wool
b) Silk
c) Cotton
d) Jute
Answer: c) Cotton - Who introduced the Minute on Indian Education in 1835?
a) Lord Curzon
b) Thomas Macaulay
c) Lord Dalhousie
d) Robert Clive
Answer: b) Thomas Macaulay - What was the primary objective of British education policy introduced by Macaulay?
a) Preserve Indian culture
b) Create English-educated Indians to serve British needs
c) Promote regional languages
d) Encourage traditional learning
Answer: b) Create English-educated Indians to serve British needs - What was the main purpose of railway construction by the British in India?
a) Integrate Indian markets for Indian benefit
b) Fast movement of goods, raw materials and troops for British interests
c) Promote tourism
d) Support Indian farmers
Answer: b) Fast movement of goods, raw materials and troops for British interests - What was the earliest organized resistance movement after the 1770 Bengal famine?
a) Sepoy Mutiny
b) Sannyasi-Fakir Rebellion
c) Indigo Revolt
d) Santhal Rebellion
Answer: b) Sannyasi-Fakir Rebellion - The Santhal rebellion of 1855-56 was mainly against:
a) British military rule
b) Landlords and moneylenders supported by the British
c) Religious conversion
d) Tax exemptions
Answer: b) Landlords and moneylenders supported by the British - Who was the female leader who fought bravely during the 1857 rebellion at Jhansi?
a) Rani Ahilyabai
b) Rani Lakshmibai
c) Begum Hazrat Mahal
d) Sarojini Naidu
Answer: b) Rani Lakshmibai - Why was the term ‘Sepoy Mutiny’ rejected by Indian historians after Independence?
a) It was a peaceful protest
b) It was a large-scale rebellion or first war of independence, not just a military mutiny
c) It was a British victory
d) It involved no Indian soldiers
Answer: b) It was a large-scale rebellion or first war of independence, not just a military mutiny - Who led the defense of Lucknow during the 1857 Rebellion?
a) Tatia Tope
b) Nana Sahib
c) Begum Hazrat Mahal
d) Mangal Pandey
Answer: c) Begum Hazrat Mahal - Which cultural impact did British colonialism have in India?
a) Preservation of all Indian institutions
b) Destruction and theft of cultural artefacts alongside documentation
c) Complete cultural independence
d) Introduction of only Indian arts to Europe
Answer: b) Destruction and theft of cultural artefacts alongside documentation - What was the effect of British law on India’s traditional governance?
a) Strengthened village republics
b) Dismantled indigenous governance and imposed foreign legal system
c) Increased local autonomy
d) Promoted self-rule
Answer: b) Dismantled indigenous governance and imposed foreign legal system
CHAPTER 5:- UNIVERSAL FRANCHISE AND INDIA’S ELECTORAL SYSTEM
- What does universal adult franchise mean in India?
a) Only adults from certain communities can vote
b) Every adult citizen aged 18 and above has the right to vote
c) Only literate citizens can vote
d) Only men above 21 can vote
Answer: b) Every adult citizen aged 18 and above has the right to vote - Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for universal adult franchise? a) Article 326 b) Article 19. c) Article 370. d) Article 15. Answer: a) Article 326
3. What is the minimum age allowed to vote in India after the 1988 amendment?
a) 16 years
b) 18 years
c) 21 years
d) 25 years
Answer: b) 18 years
4. What is the role of the Election Commission of India (ECI)?
a) Conduct free and fair elections
b) Register political parties
c) Enforce Model Code of Conduct
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
5. What is the purpose of the NOTA (None Of The Above) option in voting?
a) To select the winning candidate
b) To reject all candidates if dissatisfied
c) To submit blank votes
d) To vote twice
Answer: b) To reject all candidates if dissatisfied
6. Which technology is used in Indian elections to cast votes?
a) Paper ballots only
b) Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs)
c) Postal ballots only
d) Mobile voting apps
Answer: b) Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs)
7. What does the VVPAT system allow voters to do?
a) Vote electronically without confirmation
b) Verifiably see and confirm a paper slip of their vote choice
c) Vote using mobile phones
d) Anonymously drop votes in a box
Answer: b) Verifiably see and confirm a paper slip of their vote choice
8. Why is a secret ballot important in elections?
a) To avoid voter intimidation and ensure privacy
b) To allow multiple votes
c) To identify voters with their choices
d) To speed up counting process
Answer: a) To avoid voter intimidation and ensure privacy
9. Who was India’s first voter in the 1951 general elections?
a) Rajiv Gandhi
b) Shyam Saran Negi
c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: b) Shyam Saran Negi
10. What is the structure of the Election Commission of India?
a) Chief Election Commissioner & two Election Commissioners
b) Single Election Officer with no assistants
c) State Election Commissioner only
d) Parliamentary committee
Answer: a) Chief Election Commissioner & two Election Commissioners
11. How many Lok Sabha constituencies does India have?
a) 543
b) 350
c) 600
d) 400
Answer: a) 543
12. What does the first-past-the-post system mean in Indian elections?
a) Candidate with the majority of votes wins
b) Candidate with the most votes wins, even if less than 50%
c) Candidate appointed by the government wins
d) Candidate with no votes wins
Answer: b) Candidate with the most votes wins, even if less than 50%
13. What is the function of a Returning Officer (RO) in elections?
a) Register voters
b) Conduct and supervise elections in a constituency
c) Count votes only
d) Campaign for candidates
Answer: b) Conduct and supervise elections in a constituency
14. Seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha are:
a) 84 for SC and 47 for ST
b) 47 for SC and 84 for ST
c) 100 for SC only
d) No reservation
Answer: a) 84 for SC and 47 for ST
15. Who elects the members of the Rajya Sabha?
a) General public
b) Members of State Legislative Assemblies (MLAs)
c) Lok Sabha members
d) President of India
Answer: b) Members of State Legislative Assemblies (MLAs)
16. The Rajya Sabha is called the:
a) Lower House
b) Permanent House
c) People’s House
d) Executive Council
Answer: b) Permanent House
17. How long is the term of a Rajya Sabha member?
a) 5 years
b) 6 years
c) Lifetime
d) 3 years
Answer: b) 6 years
18. Who elects the President of India?
a) Direct vote by all citizens
b) Electoral College consisting of MPs and MLAs
c) Supreme Court
d) Prime Minister
Answer: b) Electoral College consisting of MPs and MLAs
19. Which voting system is used for election of the President of India?
a) First-past-the-post
b) Proportional representation with single transferable vote
c) Direct election
d) Electoral college with simple majority
Answer: b) Proportional representation with single transferable vote
20. Who was the Chief Election Commissioner known for making Indian elections free and fair in the 1990s?
a) T.N. Seshan
b) Rajiv Kumar
c) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
d) V.K. Krishna Menon
Answer: a) T.N. Seshan
CHAPTER 6- THE PARLIAMENTARY SYSTEM: LEGISLATURE AND EXECUTIVE
- The Indian Parliament is composed of:
a) The President only
b) Lok Sabha only
c) Rajya Sabha only
d) The President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha
Answer: d) The President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha - The Indian Parliamentary system is:
a) Unicameral
b) Bicameral
c) Tricameral
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Bicameral - Who presides over the Rajya Sabha?
a) Speaker
b) Vice President of India
c) Prime Minister
d) President
Answer: b) Vice President of India - The presiding officer of the Lok Sabha is called:
a) President
b) Speaker
c) Governor
d) Chief Minister
Answer: b) Speaker - The primary responsibility of the Parliament is:
a) Making laws
b) Execute laws
c) Enforce laws
d) Declare war
Answer: a) Making laws - Which of the following is NOT a constitutional function of Parliament?
a) Election of President and Vice President
b) Amendment of the Constitution
c) Running the executive
d) Approving financial budgets
Answer: c) Running the executive - A bill becomes an act after:
a) Approval by the Lok Sabha only
b) Presidential assent
c) Approval by Rajya Sabha only
d) Approval by the Prime Minister
Answer: b) Presidential assent - What is the function of a Standing Committee in Parliament?
a) Draft bills exclusively
b) Scrutinize government activities and bills
c) Elect the President
d) Organize parliamentary sessions
Answer: b) Scrutinize government activities and bills - Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?
a) President
b) Vice President
c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
d) Chief Justice
Answer: a) President - The Prime Minister and Council of Ministers are responsible to:
a) Rajya Sabha
b) Lok Sabha
c) President only
d) Supreme Court
Answer: b) Lok Sabha - The ‘Question Hour’ in Parliament is used for:
a) Making speeches
b) Questioning government ministers about policies and work
c) Voting laws
d) Electing Speaker
Answer: b) Questioning government ministers about policies and work - Which official symbol was handed to Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru on 14th August 1947 symbolizing righteous rule?
a) Tricolor flag
b) Sengol (sceptre)
c) Constitution
d) Lion Capital of Ashoka
Answer: b) Sengol (sceptre) - How many languages currently have simultaneous interpretation services in Parliament?
a) 12
b) 18
c) 6
d) 24
Answer: b) 18 - Which of the following is NOT a part of the Union Executive?
a) Prime Minister
b) President
c) Vice President
d) Supreme Court Chief Justice
Answer: d) Supreme Court Chief Justice - Who holds the real executive power in the Indian Parliamentary system?
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Speaker
d) Judiciary
Answer: b) Prime Minister - Permanent committees in Parliament which examine government functions are called:
a) Ad-hoc Committees
b) Standing Committees
c) Select Committees
d) Joint Committees
Answer: b) Standing Committees - Which minister resigned in 1956 taking moral responsibility for a train accident?
a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
b) Sardar Patel
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Answer: a) Lal Bahadur Shastri - Which body checks the financial expenditure of the government?
a) Judiciary
b) Parliament
c) Election Commission
d) Prime Minister’s Office
Answer: b) Parliament - The parliamentary system of India is inspired mainly by the system of:
a) USA
b) Britain
c) France
d) Russia
Answer: b) Britain - The deliberations in Parliament can include:
a) Serious debates only
b) Poetry and humour as well
c) Only financial discussions
d) Only law discussions
Answer: b) Poetry and humour as well
CHAPTER 7-FACTORS OF PRODUCTION
- Which of the following is NOT considered a factor of production?
a) Land
b) Labor
c) Entrepreneurship
d) Currency notes
Answer: d) Currency notes
2. In economics, ‘land’ refers to:
a) Only the soil
b) Natural resources including soil, forests, minerals, water
c) Buildings and factories
d) Capital goods
Answer: b) Natural resources including soil, forests, minerals, water
3. Human capital mainly refers to:
a) Number of workers
b) Physical strength of labor
c) Knowledge, skills, and health of workers
d) Financial capital
Answer: c) Knowledge, skills, and health of workers
4. Which factor combines land, labor, capital to produce goods and services?
a) Technology
b) Entrepreneurship
c) Human capital
d) Natural resources
Answer: b) Entrepreneurship
5. What does entrepreneurship involve?
a) Investing money only
b) Starting a business, taking risks, and innovating
c) Selling labor
d) Farming land
Answer: b) Starting a business, taking risks, and innovating
6. Which of these facilitates the development of human capital?
a) Education and training
b) Natural resource availability
c) Mechanical tools
d) Land ownership
Answer: a) Education and training
7. Capital in economics refers to:
a) Money only
b) Physical and financial assets used in production
c) Labor force
d) Natural resources
Answer: b) Physical and financial assets used in production
8. What is a dividend?
a) A loan taken by businesses
b) Profit paid regularly to shareholders
c) A loss in business
d) Raw material cost
Answer: b) Profit paid regularly to shareholders
9. Why is technology considered an enabler of production?
a) It replaces labor completely
b) It helps produce more efficiently with fewer inputs
c) It increases cost
d) It is unimportant in production
Answer: b) It helps produce more efficiently with fewer inputs
10. Which of the following is an example of ancient Indian technology?
a) Steam engine
b) Shipbuilding technique using stitching wooden planks
c) Electronic sensors
d) Satellite launch
Answer: b) Shipbuilding technique using stitching wooden planks
11. What is the term for the ability to do more in a particular time period?
a) Literacy
b) Productivity
c) Capital
d) Entrepreneurship
Answer: b) Productivity
12. Human capital is improved by:
a) Continuous schooling and skill development
b) Physical labor alone
c) Land ownership
d) Capital investments only
Answer: a) Continuous schooling and skill development
13. What challenge does India face in human capital development?
a) Overproduction of resources
b) Unequal access to education and health
c) Excess capital investments
d) Lack of land
Answer: b) Unequal access to education and health
14. Which business sector is generally labor-intensive?
a) Semiconductor manufacturing
b) Agriculture and handicrafts
c) Software development
d) Pharmaceuticals
Answer: b) Agriculture and handicrafts
15. What happens if one factor of production is missing or misused?
a) Increased production efficiency
b) Production may be inefficient or halted
c) No effect on production
d) Only capital is affected
Answer: b) Production may be inefficient or halted
16. What is entrepreneurship’s role in production?
a) Combining factors of production and making key decisions
b) Only managing money
c) Building factories only
d) Farming land
Answer: a) Combining factors of production and making key decisions
17. Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) mandates Indian companies to:
a) Donate all profits to charity
b) Spend a percentage of profits on social and environmental causes
c) Avoid paying taxes
d) Focus only on profit-making
Answer: b) Spend a percentage of profits on social and environmental causes
18. Which Indian entrepreneur started India’s first airline, Tata Airlines?
a) Dhirubhai Ambani
b) J.R.D. Tata
c) Ratan Tata
d) Mukesh Ambani
Answer: b) J.R.D. Tata
19. Skill can be best defined as:
a) Something inherited from parents
b) The ability to do something well with practice
c) Only physical strength
d) Attending school alone
Answer: b) The ability to do something well with practice
20. What is the economic significance of technology in production?
a) It makes processes slower
b) It helps lower cost and improve product quality
c) It replaces all labor directly
d) It makes products more expensive always
Answer: b) It helps lower cost and improve product quality