Table of Contents
Part 1: Work with Life Forms
Project 1: Plant Nursery
30 MCQ Objective Questions (With Answers)
1. Life forms include:
a) Only humans
b) Only plants
c) All living organisms
d) Only animals
Answer: c
2. Plant Nursery projects help students learn about:
a) Cooking
b) Working with living things
c) Drawing
d) Painting
Answer: b
3. Plants reproduce through:
a) Metals
b) Electricity
c) Propagation methods
d) Plastic
Answer: c
4. A suitable environment for plant growth requires:
a) Air, sunlight, nutrients, water
b) Plastic and rubber
c) Cement and sand
d) Only sunlight
Answer: a
5. Humid air contains:
a) Less water vapour
b) More water vapour
c) No oxygen
d) Only nitrogen
Answer: b
6. More plants grow near water sources because:
a) Animals bring seeds
b) They get optimal moisture and temperature
c) There is more soil
d) Plants prefer shade only
Answer: b
7. Nurseries help in:
a) Destroying plants
b) Preserving plant species
c) Cutting trees
d) Drying leaves
Answer: b
8. One benefit of nurseries is:
a) Plants can grow only in one season
b) Plants can be grown anytime
c) Plants need no care
d) Plants cannot be sold
Answer: b
9. Tools like spades and shovels must be handled:
a) Carelessly
b) Without grip
c) Carefully
d) Only by teachers
Answer: c
10. After working with soil, one should:
a) Sleep
b) Wash hands
c) Run
d) Play games
Answer: b
11. Vegetable nurseries in agriculture areas usually grow:
a) Mango
b) Rose
c) Brinjal, Tomato, Onion
d) Banyan tree
Answer: c
12. The first step in Activity 1 is to:
a) Paint a pot
b) Visit a nearby nursery
c) Make compost
d) Prepare soil
Answer: b
13. In seed germination tests, how many seeds are counted?
a) 20
b) 50
c) 100
d) 10
Answer: c
14. Seed germination paper is used because it:
a) Looks colourful
b) Holds moisture
c) Dries fast
d) Is scented
Answer: b
15. The formula for germination percentage involves:
a) Soil weight
b) Number of seeds germinated
c) Leaf size
d) Plant height
Answer: b
16. Cocopeat can absorb:
a) No water
b) 5–8 litres of water per kg
c) Only a few drops
d) Exactly 1 litre
Answer: b
17. Seedling trays are useful when:
a) Soil is not needed
b) Space is limited
c) There is too much land
d) Plants should not grow
Answer: b
18. Growing media like cocopeat help by:
a) Preventing moisture
b) Managing moisture and reducing diseases
c) Killing plants
d) Removing sunlight
Answer: b
19. Plant propagation through cuttings includes:
a) Stones
b) Leaves and roots only
c) Softwood, semi-hardwood, hardwood cuttings
d) Only flowers
Answer: c
20. Stem cuttings should be cut at:
a) 90° angle
b) 0° angle
c) 45° angle
d) 180° angle
Answer: c
21. Rooting hormone is used to:
a) Kill insects
b) Increase root formation
c) Dry the plant
d) Break stems
Answer: b
22. Raised-beds help seedlings by:
a) Storing water
b) Draining extra water
c) Breaking roots
d) Removing nutrients
Answer: b
23. Distance between raised-beds should be:
a) 5–10 metres
b) 1–2 metres
c) 0.30–0.40 metres
d) 3–4 metres
Answer: c
24. Small seeds are mixed with sand to:
a) Add colour
b) Make sowing easier
c) Increase weight
d) Remove smell
Answer: b
25. Shade-net percentage suitable for young plants is:
a) 10%
b) 50% or 75%
c) 5%
d) 100%
Answer: b
26. Nursery bags must have:
a) Holes for drainage
b) No holes
c) Water inside
d) Stones filled
Answer: a
27. Young plants are delicate and require:
a) Hot temperature
b) Care until they grow strong
c) No care
d) Only sunlight
Answer: b
28. Cost calculation is recorded in:
a) Table 1.1
b) Table 1.3
c) Table 2.1
d) Table 5.6
Answer: b
29. Digital tools can help with:
a) Playing games
b) Tracking plant growth and pests
c) Shopping
d) Watching movies
Answer: b
30. Jobs related to this project include:
a) Pilot
b) Astronaut
c) Gardener, botanist, forest officer
d) Dancer
Answer: c
Project 2: School Habitat Garden
30 MCQ Objective Questions (With Answers)
1. A habitat garden helps animals by providing:
a) Toys and colours
b) Shelter, food, water, and space
c) Medicines
d) Clothing
Answer: b
2. Animals like pigeons, sparrows, and squirrels coexist with humans in:
a) Laboratories
b) Cities and towns
c) Deserts only
d) Ocean areas
Answer: b
3. Pigeons are commonly found on building ledges because their natural habitat is:
a) Wetlands
b) Sandy deserts
c) Cliffs and rocky hills
d) Riversides
Answer: c
4. The four essentials of an animal’s habitat are:
a) Space, air, toys, light
b) Space, shelter, food, water
c) Grass, soil, trees, flowers
d) Heat, nests, light, shade
Answer: b
5. Butterflies and ants drink water mainly from:
a) Deep ponds
b) Buckets
c) Dew drops
d) Wells
Answer: c
6. Birds like bulbul, dove and munia enjoy:
a) Sand beds
b) Deep water bathing
c) Shallow water baths
d) Climbing walls
Answer: c
7. Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary is located in:
a) Assam
b) Rajasthan
c) Sikkim
d) Kerala
Answer: b
8. A sanctuary means:
a) A noisy place
b) A marketplace
c) A safe place where needs are met
d) A desert area
Answer: c
9. While setting up a habitat garden, one must wear:
a) Jewellery
b) Gloves
c) Sandals
d) Earphones
Answer: b
10. According to internet safety guidelines, students must:
a) Share personal details
b) Download anything freely
c) Ask a teacher before using the internet
d) Upload all photos
Answer: c
11. In Activity 1, students must observe animals:
a) Only inside classrooms
b) Around the school premises
c) Only in forests
d) Only at home
Answer: b
12. One animal students may want to avoid in the habitat garden is:
a) Sunbird
b) Butterfly
c) Mosquito
d) Sparrow
Answer: c
13. An entomologist is a person who studies:
a) Plants
b) Rocks
c) Insects
d) Birds
Answer: c
14. A lepidopterist studies:
a) Mammals
b) Frogs
c) Butterflies and moths
d) Fish
Answer: c
15. Butterflies need protection from:
a) Sunlight
b) Wind
c) Soil
d) Moisture
Answer: b
16. House sparrows build nests in:
a) Deep water
b) Open fields only
c) Dense bushes, hedges, and man-made structures
d) Inside soil
Answer: c
17. Spiders drink water mainly from:
a) Rivers
b) Dew on their webs
c) Deep ponds
d) Rainwater tanks
Answer: b
18. Mudpuddling is commonly seen in:
a) Birds
b) Lizards
c) Butterflies
d) Frogs
Answer: c
19. Dustbathing in birds helps them:
a) Fly faster
b) Remove insects and clean feathers
c) Change colour
d) Sleep
Answer: b
20. To create a butterfly puddling area, containers must be filled with:
a) Cold water
b) Stones, sand, salt, compost
c) Plastic pieces
d) Only sugar syrup
Answer: b
21. A butterfly shelter should be:
a) Large with wide openings
b) Narrow slits so birds cannot enter
c) Buried in soil
d) Filled with water
Answer: b
22. Beneficial insect shelters should be placed:
a) Very high on a terrace
b) Under water
c) 1–3 feet above ground
d) Near fire
Answer: c
23. While creating the garden, compost needed per 100 sq. metre is:
a) 5–10 kg
b) 20–30 kg
c) 100 kg
d) None required
Answer: b
24. Bird feeders shown on page 42 are mainly made from:
a) New plastic
b) Steel bowls
c) Old bottles and lids
d) Cardboard only
Answer: c
25. Birds and butterflies are most active during:
a) Afternoon
b) Midnight
c) Sunrise and sunset
d) Lunchtime
Answer: c
26. A habitat garden helps create:
a) A noisy space
b) A self-sustaining ecosystem
c) A shopping centre
d) A playground
Answer: b
27. Maintaining the habitat garden includes:
a) Leaving stagnant water
b) Clearing dry leaves and composting
c) Breaking all nests
d) Removing flowering plants
Answer: b
28. To prevent mosquitoes, one must:
a) Keep water containers open
b) Allow puddles to collect
c) Avoid stagnant water
d) Grow tall grass
Answer: c
29. Jobs related to this project include:
a) Chef and driver
b) Naturalist, conservationist, zoologist
c) Engineer and pilot
d) Architect only
Answer: b
30. A time-lapse video helps students:
a) Play games
b) Track changes in the garden over time
c) Remove plants
d) Identify snakes
Answer: b
Part 2: Work with Machines and Materials
Project 3: Tie and Dye
30 MCQ Objective Questions (With Answers)
1. Tie and Dye is also known as:
a) Batik
b) Bandhani
c) Weaving
d) Knitting
Answer: b
2. Bandhani literally means:
a) To paint
b) To bind or tie
c) To fold
d) To sew
Answer: b
3. Bandhani is traditionally practised in:
a) Kerala and Assam
b) Rajasthan and Gujarat
c) Punjab and Haryana
d) Sikkim and Manipur
Answer: b
4. Which fabric is BEST suited for traditional Bandhani?
a) Polyester
b) Cotton, silk, wool
c) Nylon
d) Plastic sheets
Answer: b
5. The purpose of tying fabric is to:
a) Colour the tied part
b) Prevent dye from colouring that area
c) Add weight
d) Increase shine
Answer: b
6. A mustard seed is used in Bandhani to:
a) Add fragrance
b) Create small circular patterns
c) Increase colour brightness
d) Flatten fabric
Answer: b
7. The tool “Nakhli/Nakhlo” is used for:
a) Cutting fabric
b) Picking fabric while tying
c) Measuring dye
d) Heating dye
Answer: b
8. Shibori is a tie and dye technique from:
a) China
b) India
c) Japan
d) Thailand
Answer: c
9. Leheriya patterns resemble:
a) Dots
b) Waves
c) Squares
d) Triangles
Answer: b
10. The earliest evidence of Bandhani is found in:
a) Ajanta caves
b) Ellora caves
c) Taj Mahal
d) Hampi
Answer: a
11. Natural dyes can be made using:
a) Plastic
b) Turmeric, beetroot, spinach
c) Cement
d) Metal scraps
Answer: b
12. Salt or vinegar acts as a:
a) Bleaching agent
b) Fixer
c) Perfume
d) Thickener
Answer: b
13. According to the safety guidelines, students must wear:
a) Sandals
b) Gloves, apron, mask, goggles
c) Watches
d) Rings
Answer: b
14. Before dyeing, the fabric must be:
a) Oiled
b) Washed to remove starch and dirt
c) Ironed with steam
d) Stitched
Answer: b
15. In the process flow (Fig. 3.9), step 3 is:
a) Prepare dye
b) Select plant for natural dye
c) Dry fabric
d) Untie fabric
Answer: b
16. In Leheriya, the fabric is tied after:
a) Rolling
b) Pleating
c) Cutting
d) Painting
Answer: b
17. Shibori designs use:
a) Running stitches
b) Stone blocks
c) Glue
d) Plastic wrappers
Answer: a
18. Beetroot dye is prepared by boiling it for:
a) 10 minutes
b) 1 hour
c) 20 minutes
d) Not boiled at all
Answer: b
19. Turmeric dye becomes stronger when:
a) Salt/vinegar is added
b) Ice is added
c) Fabric is soaked in oil
d) Fabric is dried in sunlight
Answer: a
20. In the dyeing process (Fig. 3.16), the tied fabric is first dipped in:
a) Warm dye
b) Cold dye
c) Normal water
d) Boiling oil
Answer: c
21. One common challenge mentioned in Table 3.7 is:
a) Fabric becomes too shiny
b) Thread breaks during dyeing
c) Fabric becomes too long
d) Colour becomes glittery
Answer: b
22. A swatch file contains:
a) Fabric samples with details
b) Only dye bottles
c) Only stitched clothes
d) Only designs without fabric
Answer: a
23. One suggested final product for tie and dye is:
a) Telephone
b) Pillow cover
c) Fan
d) Bucket
Answer: b
24. The average size of a dupatta is:
a) 10 cm
b) 50–100 cm
c) 2–2.5 metres
d) 5 metres
Answer: c
25. Reverse tie and dye creates patterns by:
a) Adding extra colours
b) Removing colour using bleach
c) Stitching cloth
d) Using thread painting
Answer: b
26. One job related to tie and dye mentioned in the PDF is:
a) Chef
b) Textile researcher
c) Electrician
d) Carpenter
Answer: b
27. Batik uses:
a) Wax resist method
b) Beads
c) Needles only
d) Ice water
Answer: a
28. Leheriya represents:
a) Fire
b) Waves and flow of water
c) Clouds
d) Birds
Answer: b
29. Cold water dyes:
a) Always require boiling
b) Use chemical fixers at room temperature
c) Are used only at night
d) Cannot be used for cotton
Answer: b
30. The four steps for the final product include:
a) Mixing, cutting, washing, selling
b) Preparing fabric, tying, dyeing, untying
c) Sewing, cutting, ironing, folding
d) Painting, stitching, boiling, packing
Answer: b
Project 4: AI Assistant
30 MCQ Objective Questions (With Answers)
1. Intelligence is the ability to:
a) Memorise everything instantly
b) Learn and use learning in new situations
c) Sleep for long hours
d) Move quickly
Answer: b
2. Machines becoming intelligent like humans is called:
a) Robotics
b) Automation
c) Artificial Intelligence
d) Computation
Answer: c
3. The process of teaching a machine using examples is called:
a) Programming
b) Machine Learning
c) Instructions list
d) Coding
Answer: b
4. To teach a machine to recognise mangoes, we must:
a) Show one image only
b) Show many images from different angles and lighting
c) Show only drawings
d) Give audio clips
Answer: b
5. AI can recognise audio recordings if:
a) The audio is sung
b) We train it using different tones and instruments
c) The sound is very loud
d) Humans translate it
Answer: b
6. Which tool guesses drawings in Activity 1?
a) Google Maps
b) Quick Draw
c) Scratch
d) AutoDraw
Answer: b
7. Google Maps was used to test:
a) Creative thinking
b) Prediction of travel time
c) Translation
d) Listening ability
Answer: b
8. Excess screen time affects:
a) Strength
b) Mental and physical health
c) Sports time
d) Speaking skills
Answer: b
9. AI hearing aids help people by:
a) Increasing background noise
b) Suppressing unwanted noise
c) Removing speech
d) Playing music automatically
Answer: b
10. Prof. Stephen Hawking used AI because:
a) He wanted to play games
b) He lost the ability to speak
c) He designed robots
d) He couldn’t hear
Answer: b
11. Google Lens is used in Activity 2 for:
a) Editing videos
b) Scanning unknown plants/objects
c) Solving maths
d) Writing stories
Answer: b
12. Photomath helps in:
a) Drawing
b) Reading images
c) Solving mathematics problems step-by-step
d) Playing music
Answer: c
13. Bhashini is used to:
a) Recognise animals
b) Translate languages
c) Predict distances
d) Identify songs
Answer: b
14. AI prompts are:
a) Short search words
b) Detailed instructions/questions
c) Drawings
d) Audio clips
Answer: b
15. AutoDraw is used to:
a) Translate text
b) Clean up rough sketches
c) Identify plants
d) Create animations
Answer: b
16. While collecting data, students must:
a) Take photos secretly
b) Ask permission before taking photos
c) Never use the camera
d) Only use downloaded photos
Answer: b
17. Data can be in the form of:
a) Only numbers
b) Images, videos, sounds, words
c) Only text
d) Only drawings
Answer: b
18. Aisha collected how many images per mango variety?
a) 3–4
b) 5–8
c) 12–15
d) 50
Answer: c
19. Aisha categorised mangoes based on:
a) Colour only
b) Shape only
c) Varieties like Alphonso, Himsagar, Malgova
d) Weight
Answer: c
20. Teachable Machine is used to:
a) Translate text
b) Train image and audio models
c) Write stories
d) Perform surgery
Answer: b
21. In Teachable Machine the first step is to:
a) Train model
b) Upload images into categories
c) Test with webcam
d) Predict time
Answer: b
22. After training the model, Aisha:
a) Deleted her work
b) Saved it by exporting the model
c) Printed the photos
d) Closed the browser
Answer: b
23. Model accuracy improves by:
a) Reducing images
b) Adding more and varied images
c) Changing colours randomly
d) Using fewer categories
Answer: b
24. Testing includes:
a) Using new images
b) Using webcam
c) Both a and b
d) None
Answer: c
25. Scratch AI Raise Playground is used to:
a) Create movies
b) Add characters and dialogue to the AI Assistant
c) Create posters
d) Design clothes
Answer: b
26. The AI Assistant can ask questions like:
a) “What is your age?”
b) “Do you want to learn about heritage or wildlife?”
c) “Do you like cricket?”
d) “What is 2 + 2?”
Answer: b
27. Sharing the model helps in:
a) Getting feedback
b) Playing games
c) Deleting data
d) Avoiding errors
Answer: a
28. One job related to this project is:
a) Chef
b) Data scientist
c) Farmer
d) Painter
Answer: b
29. An algorithm is described as:
a) A list of ingredients
b) A detailed list of instructions
c) A painting
d) A conversation
Answer: b
30. Audio data training on Teachable Machine requires:
a) One recording
b) More than ten sound clips per category
c) Only text labels
d) Only music
Answer: b
Part 3: Work in Human Services
Project 5: Storytime with Puppets
30 MCQ Objective Questions (With Answers)
1. Storytelling in ancient India is visible in the paintings of:
a) Ajanta caves
b) Sanchi stupa
c) Red Fort
d) Charminar
Answer: a
2. Kavad storytelling uses:
a) Cloth scrolls
b) Wooden shrine that opens
c) Masks and drums
d) Shadow puppets
Answer: b
3. Yakshagana uses __________ during storytelling.
a) Only written scripts
b) Music, masks, costumes
c) Clay models
d) Magic tricks
Answer: b
4. A clockwork doll is NOT a puppet because:
a) It is too heavy
b) It does not move with a puppeteer
c) It is made of plastic
d) It cannot talk
Answer: b
5. Puppetry is the art of moving puppets using:
a) Fans
b) Hand, rods or strings
c) Magnets
d) Robots
Answer: b
6. Puppet shows help in sharing sensitive social messages because:
a) Puppets are expensive
b) People listen without hesitation
c) They require big stages
d) They need many actors
Answer: b
7. Archaeologists at Karanpura found:
a) A puppet-headed bull
b) Wooden puppets
c) A stone theatre mask
d) A golden puppet
Answer: a
8. One objective of this project is to:
a) Learn cooking
b) Write a script
c) Memorise poems
d) Draw landscapes
Answer: b
9. Which material is NOT listed for making puppets?
a) Slippers
b) Spoons
c) Thermocol
d) Smartphone
Answer: d
10. While performing, the script must include:
a) Weather report
b) Step-by-step scenes and dialogues
c) Newspaper articles
d) Film reviews
Answer: b
11. In the sample script, Gopal shaved:
a) His head
b) Half his beard
c) Both eyebrows
d) His moustache
Answer: b
12. Props are defined as:
a) Only puppets
b) Objects other than puppets used on stage
c) Only lighting tools
d) Musical instruments
Answer: b
13. A character sketch helps decide:
a) The stage size
b) Puppet personality and appearance
c) Ticket rate
d) Number of audience
Answer: b
14. Graph paper is used to:
a) Make the puppet stronger
b) Enlarge drawings proportionately
c) Add colour
d) Calculate script length
Answer: b
15. Sock puppets can be moved by:
a) Battery
b) Wearing them over your hand
c) Pulling a rope
d) Turning a wheel
Answer: b
16. Spoon puppets are made by:
a) Melting the spoon
b) Painting a face on the spoon
c) Freezing spoons
d) Using spoons as musical instruments only
Answer: b
17. Slipper puppets use which items for eyes?
a) Cork buttons
b) Coins
c) Marbles
d) Beads only
Answer: a
18. Vegetable puppets often use __________ for facial features.
a) Glass pieces
b) Radish and carrot
c) Plastic toys
d) Rubber bands
Answer: b
19. Leaf puppets can be made using:
a) Iron rods
b) Green or dried leaves
c) Plastic sheets
d) Metal foil
Answer: b
20. In making a puppet head, the water–glue ratio is:
a) 5:1
b) 4:1
c) 3:1
d) 1:3
Answer: c (3 parts water : 1 part glue)
21. Painting puppet faces requires:
a) Realistic skin tone always
b) Any colour, since puppets are imaginary
c) Only black and white
d) Waterproof paint
Answer: b
22. Puppet movement can be created using:
a) Strings, sticks, or hand movements
b) Charging cables
c) Electric fans
d) Robots
Answer: a
23. The puppet stage must:
a) Be hidden from the audience
b) Allow audience to clearly see puppets
c) Be made only of wood
d) Be outdoors only
Answer: b
24. Backdrops show:
a) Puppet names
b) Setting of each scene
c) Script length
d) Price of materials
Answer: b
25. Props must be:
a) Very heavy
b) Light if held by puppeteer
c) Made of metal only
d) Avoided completely
Answer: b
26. Voice modulation helps to:
a) Change puppet clothes
b) Show emotions and differentiate characters
c) Control lights
d) Move puppets
Answer: b
27. Sound effects can be created by:
a) Tapping objects like bottles and desks
b) Pouring water
c) Burning paper
d) Whispering always
Answer: a
28. Light effects can be created with:
a) Torch, diya, fairy lights
b) A stovetop
c) Car headlights
d) Laser beams only
Answer: a
29. The puppeteer must:
a) Show emotions on their face
b) Keep a flat face so audience focuses on the puppet
c) Stand in front of the puppet
d) Talk without script
Answer: b
30. One job related to puppetry is:
a) Meteorologist
b) Light and sound technician
c) Pilot
d) Shopkeeper
Answer: b
Project 6 – Family Health Handbook
30 MCQ Objective Questions (With Answers)
1. Family health refers to:
a) Only physical fitness
b) Physical, mental, and emotional well-being of all members
c) Only mental well-being
d) Only diet and exercise
Answer: b
2. Good health depends on all the following EXCEPT:
a) Diet
b) Physical fitness
c) Sleep
d) Expensive medicines
Answer: d
3. Yoga helps students become:
a) Sleepy and lazy
b) Flexible, calm, and energised
c) Less attentive
d) Forgetful
Answer: b
4. The body repairs itself mostly during:
a) Watching TV
b) Sleeping
c) Exercising
d) Eating
Answer: b
5. Sleeping 9–11 hours is recommended for:
a) Adults
b) Babies only
c) Students aged 6–13
d) Elderly people
Answer: c
6. Lack of personal hygiene leads to:
a) Better immunity
b) Poor health
c) Strong bones
d) Better sleep
Answer: b
7. Which factor does NOT affect health?
a) Visitors at home
b) Pollution
c) Sleep
d) Lack of exercise
Answer: a
8. Meal frequency recommended by experts is:
a) One large meal
b) Three meals + 1–2 healthy snacks
c) Two meals only
d) Snacks only
Answer: b
9. Drinking 6–8 glasses of water daily helps with:
a) Clothing choices
b) Digestion and temperature regulation
c) Height growth
d) Hair colour
Answer: b
10. Healthy sleep is supported by:
a) Using screens before bed
b) Loud music
c) Regular sleep schedule
d) Heavy meals before sleeping
Answer: c
11. Excess screen time before sleep:
a) Improves memory
b) Affects sleep quality
c) Improves concentration
d) Has no effect
Answer: b
12. During hospital visits, students must:
a) Wear a mask
b) Touch all equipment
c) Help in treatment
d) Remove gloves frequently
Answer: a
13. The national emergency number is:
a) 100
b) 101
c) 112
d) 119
Answer: c
14. First-aid is:
a) Final medical treatment
b) Emergency help before medical care
c) A type of diet
d) Only for hospitals
Answer: b
15. ORS is made using:
a) Only salt
b) Only sugar
c) Salt + sugar + clean water
d) Milk + sugar
Answer: c
16. To treat minor burns, the first step is to:
a) Apply ice
b) Wash under running tap water
c) Apply paint
d) Rub oil
Answer: b
17. First-aid kit items should be placed in:
a) Multiple small plates
b) A wide metal container or small pocketed bag
c) Plastic bottles
d) Envelopes
Answer: b
18. Which age group needs more than 11 hours of sleep?
a) 19–30 years
b) Children below 5 years
c) Elderly
d) Teenagers
Answer: b
19. Noise pollution becomes harmful above:
a) 20 dB
b) 40 dB
c) 85 dB
d) 120 dB
Answer: c
20. A H₂S strip test checks:
a) Air quality
b) Soil moisture
c) Water contamination
d) Temperature
Answer: c
21. Water is safe for drinking if the strip test colour stays:
a) Black
b) Golden brown
c) Pink
d) Blue
Answer: b
22. A soak pit must be made at least ______ away from a water source:
a) 1 metre
b) 2 metres
c) 5 metres
d) 10 metres
Answer: c
23. A simple soak pit requires:
a) Cement layers
b) Alternate 20-cm layers of sand and brick
c) Plastic sheets
d) Iron rods
Answer: b
24. Malaria is caused by:
a) Dirty water
b) Lack of food
c) Bite of infected female Anopheles mosquito
d) Dust
Answer: c
25. A good practice to prevent mosquito bites is:
a) Sleeping outdoors
b) Using mosquito nets
c) Wearing dark glasses
d) Eating sugary foods
Answer: b
26. Mental well-being is supported by:
a) Isolation
b) Spending time with loved ones
c) Skipping meals
d) Excess sleep
Answer: b
27. The table for health data includes:
a) Height only
b) Diet, fitness, sleep, mental well-being, environment
c) Mathematics marks
d) Shopping list
Answer: b
28. Contaminated water can cause:
a) Fractures
b) Diarrhoea, typhoid, cholera
c) Muscle pain
d) Eye colour change
Answer: b
29. Preventive action means:
a) Treating illness only
b) Avoiding illness through healthy habits
c) Using medicines daily
d) Avoiding exercise
Answer: b
30. One job related to this project is:
a) Chef
b) Doctor / nurse / ASHA worker / counsellor
c) Carpenter
d) Pilot
Answer: b